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  • Instrumentalities are defined as what?
  • Which level is the highest in the Use of Force Continuum?
  • What color copy of the 1408 do officers keep?
  • During normal working hours, how often does NSF conduct building checks?
  • Which of the following is NOT one of the six pre-sobriety questions?
  • If a patrol unit encounters an unsecured building/lock, what is the correct sequence of actions?
  • Which area is described as an area in which an individual has an inherent right to be free from governmental interference?
  • Under what circumstances should an Emergency Protective Order be requested?
  • Which component refers to the channel or method of transmission in communication?
  • Where will non-extraditable warrants be turned over?
  • In inspections policy, which statement best describes why inspections are not considered searches?
  • CODE 3 Response describes which type of emergency?
  • What is issued for a suspended license?
  • What is the 3rd clue for impairment?
  • Backup coverage is provided when the primary unit is what?
  • Can an Emergency Protective Order be requested without an arrest?
  • How many phases are there in a DUI process?
  • Surveillance Off-Base Procedures require which action?
  • What is DD 5580/22 used for?
  • Which jurisdiction covers Willoughby and Whitehurst housing area?
  • Before confiscating a weapon, what information should be given to dispatch to run?
  • What is the Assimilative Crimes Act?
  • Where may an abused person request an Emergency Protective Order?
  • Can an EPO be made even without an arrest?
  • What is DD 5580/21 used for?
  • What is the eighth clue of impairment?
  • Which system is used to verify warrants?
  • Fruits of a crime refers to which of the following?
  • What is the M18 Maximum Effective Range?
  • What is the SOP code for juvenile matters?
  • What rank must a military member in custody be turned over to?
  • Which of the following is listed as a MEVA location?
  • A protective order is designed to protect whom?
  • Which color mindset corresponds to a state of nonspecific alert to everything around you?
  • Define Apprehension.
  • In traffic accident procedures, when is the SF-91 form required?
  • Who issues a Military Protective Order?
  • What search is needed for a breath test?
  • Fruits of a poisonous tree refers to what?
  • Can NSF conduct a search incident to apprehension without obtaining a search Authorization?
  • What is DD 5580/11 used for?
  • How would you take photos of a suspect?
  • How will a judge determine if a Preliminary Protective Order should be submitted?
  • A Vehicle Report is filed on which DD 5580 form?
  • What is the designation for Q MEVA's?
  • Which item is not listed as contraband in the material?
  • Who verifies all building checks and where do the entries go?
  • Which crime is listed as a DNA collection example?
  • Which hearing is associated with obtaining a permanent protective order?
  • Yellow level of mindset is described as which state?
  • Reasonable Expectation of Privacy is best described as which of the following?
  • In Traffic Accident procedures, which item is used to document the incident?
  • M4 Max range
  • The Field Interview Card is filed on which DD 5580 form?
  • What is the maximum number of days for a debarment order?
  • What do you call someone that has a protective order against them?
  • How long must a patrolman take to complete a DUI?
  • What should you check on an apparent deceased victim?
  • A refusal to take a breath test carries which license consequence?
  • What is the fifth clue of impairment?
  • Which statement about Unit 26 is true?
  • Which of the following is NOT a DD 5580 form listed in the material?
  • Which statement best describes the red level mindset?
  • Code 1 stands for which type of response?
  • Backup Patrol Responsibilities are carried out by which zones?
  • Which color mindset corresponds to a state of specific alert?
  • Which offenses are listed as Traffic Offenses for issuing 1805?
  • Which of the following is a type of warrant?
  • Which pre-test question addresses the possibility of medical oversight?
  • Which term best describes instrumentalities?
  • Which item is not listed as contraband in the material?
  • Exigency Search is defined as obtaining evidence in an area before it is destroyed based on probable cause.
  • What is the role of officers on a medical call?
  • Which statement is preferred when clearing a weapon on scene?
  • Plain View Search allows seizing an item without a warrant when the item is in plain view and there is probable cause that it is contraband or evidence.
  • Response Procedures SOP is identified by which code?
  • Which of the following is a MEVA location?
  • What is DD 5580/2 used for?
  • Which option is NOT listed as a Standardized Field Sobriety Test in the material?
  • What should patrols ask when arriving at a vehicle accident?
  • What is the max effective range of the M4?
  • What is the seventh clue of impairment?
  • What does VWAP stand for?
  • What is the sixth clue of impairment?
  • Who facilitates the local memorandum of understanding with state/local law enforcement?
  • How is a suspended driver notified via DC-225?
  • Who should be contacted when discovering an unsecured building or lock?
  • Which question asks about medications prior to sobriety testing?
  • What is the 2nd clue for impairment?
  • Which type of protective order can be canceled by the issuing command?
  • How is a permanent protective order obtained?
  • Which items are defined as contraband?
  • Miranda Rights pertain to which of the following?
  • Orange level of mindset is described as which state?
  • Which action is NOT part of Domestic Violence Response Procedures?
  • What kind of area should an SFST be conducted in?
  • What does NCIC stand for?
  • Compared to normal hours, building checks after hours are conducted more frequently or less frequently?
  • Cedar lane is the street associated with which location?
  • Which statement best describes the elements of a Fourth Amendment search?
  • When arriving at a vehicle accident, what should officers assess first?
  • Can you ask incriminating questions while someone is under the influence of a substance?
  • Which item is listed as evidence in the Larceny at the NEX procedures?
  • What is the Virginia state BAC limit?
  • Basic reports must be completed within how many days?
  • What does implied consent entail?
  • Apprehension is defined under which article?
  • What is the SOP code for handcuffing?
  • In dealing with a juvenile felony case, which agency is identified as handling the matter?
  • What is the SOP code for the DD 1408 / 1805 procedure?
  • Who can grant access to AA&E storage areas after hours?
  • Which jurisdiction covers Craney, Ships, and Mevas?
  • What best describes the meaning of a 'hit' in warrant processing?
  • Can you charge someone with a DUI if the breath or blood alcohol content is under .08 but above .01 percent?
  • Which MEVA is designated with the N prefix?
  • The Special Assistant to the U.S. Attorney (SAUSA) primarily facilitates which agreement?
  • Which photo views should be included when photographing a suspect?
  • Which of the following best represents the complete set of V category MEVAs?
  • Which action is listed as the first step in the Larceny at the NEX procedures?
  • When issuing a DC 210, what is taken?
  • Which item asks to remove glasses if applicable?
  • What instruction governs the Navy safety & occupational health program?
  • Who can request an Emergency Protective Order (EPO)?
  • Which impairment clue involves a problem with step count during a test?
  • Domestic Violence Response Procedures require which of the following elements?
  • Where is the WSOC located?
  • Which of the following is included among SP MEVAs?
  • OPNAVINST 5530-14E is the Navy Physical Security and Law Enforcement Manual. Which option best matches this description?
  • Non-extraditable warrants turnover location includes which?
  • What is DD 5580/16 used for?
  • In a standard suspicious package response, which statement best reflects the provided procedures?
  • What is an AVI?
  • What does SJA stand for?
  • Which statement best summarizes the impairment clues?
  • What is a Protective Order?
  • The Calls for Service Unit is responsible for which area, primarily?
  • Which statement is true about Assimilative Crimes Act?
  • PBT Admissibility in Court is indicated as which in the material?
  • To what rank should custody be turned over?
  • The decision to submit a Preliminary Protective Order is based on which document?
  • During an administrative vehicle search, what should an officer gather?
  • Which of the following best describes the code 3 response?
  • How long is a permanent protective order good for?
  • What is the waiting period (observation) for the intoxalyzer?
  • NCIC stands for which term?
  • What documentation is required if a NEX incident involves civilian personnel debarment?
  • What is the fourth clue of impairment?
  • What is the mission of the Navy Security Force?
  • If a warrant is extraditable what do you need to request?
  • What is the M18 Maximum Range?
  • When should use of force be employed?
  • Which of the following is not listed as a DUI stimulus clue?
  • What should be done after sealing the tamper tape?
  • Which statement best describes Phase 3 DUI screening?
  • Which piers are MEVA's?
  • Which of the following are the ABC's for communication?
  • Which term describes a mental state of sensory overload with potential shutdown?
  • VWAP primarily supports which group?
  • Which term describes items gained in the commission of a crime?
  • Does the respondent have to be at the hearing to be issued a PPO?
  • Probable cause refers to facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonable person to believe what?
  • Plain View Search permits seizure without a warrant under which condition?
  • Which statement best describes the red level mindset?
  • Phase 2 DUI examination involves looking for which signs of impairment?
  • Which pre-test question asks whether the person is under medical care?
  • Which action is involved in HACS Test Conduct by Patrolman?
  • Which definition best describes Deadly Force in this context?
  • Phase 2 for DUI involves what?
  • DC 210 notification pertains to what?
  • Which of the following is NOT a listed DNA collection scenario?
  • In the Aircraft Escorts Procedure, what is the purpose of using two units?
  • Which code indicates the situation is under control?
  • For a warrant, what would be considered a local agency?
  • When would Norfolk PD be utilized when dealing with a juvenile?
  • Which best defines martial law?
  • Is it permissible to take photos or fingerprints of a minor in this context?
  • Who receives the unsecured building/lock security violation report after it is completed?
  • What distance should cellular and radio devices be kept from a suspicious package?
  • Which scenario best justifies an Exigency Search?
  • What is Title 18 U.S.C. 13 commonly known as?
  • CEP MEVA's designation is?
  • How far should the stimulus be placed from the face?
  • How many times will an officer conduct an SFST on a suspect?
  • Punitive articles are defined as which range of articles?
  • Who can issue a Preliminary Protective Order?
  • Which location is listed under Exclusive Jurisdiction?
  • Which devices must be secured away from a suspicious package?
  • What is the legal BAC limit described in the material?
  • Under martial law, who has unlimited authority to make and enforce laws?
  • What notifications exist for Suspended Drivers?
  • How many steps should be taken in a walk and turn?
  • How long is a military protective order good for?
  • Which item is a component of the Use of Force Continuum?
  • What is 'Qualified' martial law?
  • Can you request a warrant check if the individual is not present?
  • Which statement describes extraditable warrant handling?
  • Which agency can be requested for assistance at Craney Island?
  • Which question asks the subject to place their feet together with hands at their side?
  • In a domestic violence situation, where should you never allow an individual to go?
  • After notifying Dispatch/Watch Commander about an unknown vessel, what is the next action described?
  • Which action is included in Patrolman Duties at Craney Island?
  • Which of the following is included in the Active Shooter Response Responsibilities?
  • Which form is used to document a bomb threat received over the phone?
  • Before confiscating a weapon, what specific detail should you provide to dispatch?
  • According to the material, BAC above what percentage can be considered for DUI charges?
  • What is DD 5580/9 used for?
  • Which eye do you check first for a DUI?
  • N MEVA's designation is?
  • If a vessel is unknown at Craney Island Pier, what is the first action?
  • Are photos or fingerprints of a minor allowed?
  • DD 2701 form is associated with which program?
  • How long can permanent protective orders be extended?
  • Field Test Results are documented on which DD 5580 form?
  • Maximum Range of M4
  • On a military installation, who is subject to implied consent?
  • In the Port operations complex, where would you find the WSOC?
  • Which of the following is a valid impairment clue related to balance?
  • What does AVI stand for?
  • What is the 1st clue for impairment?
  • What are the three parts of a plain view search?
  • Which location detail describes WSOC's place within the Port operations facility?
  • Phase 3 for DUI procedures refers to which activity?
  • Which MEVA's are not on Naval Station Norfolk?
  • If a suspect vomits during the observation period what must be done?
  • How long is an emergency protective order good for?
  • Which program is associated with assisting victims and witnesses in a legal context?
  • What is the first clue of impairment?
  • Which item is not listed among the items to gather during an administrative vehicle search?
  • What street is Craney Island on?
  • Prisoner Custody Receipt uses which form number?
  • Which components are listed as Standardized Field Sobriety Tests?
  • Who can clear and safe a weapon on a scene when discovered?
  • What is the third clue of impairment?
  • Which act is described as the adoption of state law to be enforced on lands reserved or acquired by the Federal government?
  • Who must be contacted for a juvenile felony offense?
  • Which statement about stimulus placement is true?
  • What must you have for exigent searches?
  • What are Instrumentalities in crime definitions?
  • Which color mindset corresponds to a state of total vulnerability?
  • What is DD 5580/1 used for?
  • Which of the following is a listed reason for taking DNA?
  • After deeming a weapon clear and safe, what should be done with the magazine?
  • The form used for breath test search authorization is what?
  • NTTP reference for response codes is located in which document?
  • Which statement correctly contrasts who initiates an EPO with who issues a PPO?
  • Which statement best describes the black level mindset?
  • What is Article 7?
  • When should a search incident to apprehension be conducted?
  • Which steps correctly describe securing a weapon?
  • Define Detain.
  • What is DD 5580/12 used for?
  • Under the Anti-Deficiency Act, spending funds for any purpose other than that designated by Congress is prohibited. Which option best expresses this rule?
  • Which term is defined as force that is likely to cause, or that a person knows or should know would create a substantial risk of causing death or serious bodily harm or injury?
  • Who can issue an Emergency protective order?
  • How do you obtain a command Authorization search?
  • Which numbers are V MEVA's?
  • If you identify an unsecured building and it is unattended, what should be done first?
  • DD 2507 is best described as what type of document?
  • Absolute martial law involves military control over all military and civilian activities of a country from the president down to:
  • Which action is part of the Warrant Verification Process?
  • What is the primary reason for an emergency search as defined in the material?
  • Are inspections considered to be searches and why?
  • Can finger prints or photos of juveniles be taken?
  • What does the Anti-Deficiency Act prohibit?
  • Which unit is authorized to enter the perimeter around a suspicious package?
  • Apprehension is to the act of taking a person into custody as Detain is to what?
  • Which element is NOT required for a plain view search?
  • DNA collection is described for which type of crimes?
  • What is DD 5580/4 used for?
  • How many distinct MEVA codes are listed for the V category?
  • What is FAP?
  • Is there a limit to issuing permanent protective orders (PPOs)?
  • When to respond to a call using code 3?
  • What is the first action a patrol should take when identifying an unsecured building?
  • Desk Journal is filed on which DD 5580 form?
  • What is DD 2507?
  • What are the four reasons for fingerprinting?
  • How is a suspended driver notified via DSA-10?
  • Which items are included in DUI paperwork according to the procedures?
  • White level of mindset is described as which state?
  • During the observation phase, what is a subject not allowed to do?
  • Absolute martial law is defined as what?
  • Which form is used for an affidavit to support a search and seizure?
  • What is the juvenile age in Virginia for juvenile matters?
  • Which action is part of the standard response to a suspicious package?
  • Which of the following are listed as types of evidence?
  • How do you verify a warrant?
  • What do you issue for an individual who does not have insurance?
  • What is DD 2701?
  • What is the definition of Due Regard?
  • A Preliminary Protective Order is issued based on what type of statement?
  • An Emergency Protective Order lasts for how long?
  • How long is a preliminary protective order good for?
  • The three clues for DUI stimulus belong to which category?
  • Under DC-210, how is a person notified?
  • Code 4 stands for which type of response?
  • DSA 10 notification is directed to whom?
  • MEVA stands for which of the following?
  • One legged stand test accuracy
  • What must be verified about vessels as part of Patrolman Duties at Craney Island?
  • Article 31B concerns which of the following?
  • Which term describes a jurisdiction where Naval Station Norfolk excluding restricted areas, CD area, Piers, and Willoughby CDC fall under?
  • Which question checks for ailments that might prevent taking the tests?
  • Which element is part of the Aircraft Escorts Procedure?
  • To turn a military member with a warrant over to Norfolk PD, whose permission must be given?
  • Which of the following is NOT a MEVA location?
  • Which concept is described as the reasonable belief that a crime has or will be committed and the person, property, or evidence sought is located in the place to be searched?
  • Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic components of communication?
  • What does PBT stand for?
  • What is the designation for W MEVAs?
  • What is Article 15?
  • Which of the following is listed as an SP MEVA?
  • Which search type is conducted as a result of an arrest?
  • Which of the following is true about debarments and base access?
  • Who can determine there is further danger that prompts an EPO?
  • When can NSF conduct emergency searches?
  • What instruction is the Ashore Protection Program defined in?
  • What is DD 1805?
  • Which question asks about ailments that could prevent testing?
  • In Larceny at the NEX procedures, which item lists the appropriate form for mil or civilian documentation?
  • How many clues indicate DUI stimulus?
  • Which term best describes a search conducted due to immediate need to prevent loss or destruction of evidence?
  • The Ashore Protection Program is defined in which instruction?
  • Before conducting a sobriety test, which question asks if the subject is willing to comply with a series of field sobriety tests?
  • Which is the first Universal Weapons Safety Rule?
  • Which unit serves as backup to assist Craney Island?
  • Can liquids be taken as evidence?
  • Which action is NOT listed as a Patrolman duty at Craney Island?
  • Which phrase accurately reflects the first clue of impairment?
  • If an SFST or PBT is refused, should an 1805 be issued?
  • Qualified martial law means the military augments civilian law enforcement while operating under whose authority?
  • Which question directly asks about current medication use?
  • After a warrant is verified through dispatch what is needed to be picked up from them?
  • What is DD 5580/19 used for?
  • What report must be completed upon identifying an unsecured building?
  • What is a DD 1408?
  • A protective order that lasts 2 years falls under which type?
  • What is DD 5580/3 used for?
  • Which statement best describes the visual deterrent role of the Navy Security Force?
  • Which of the following is one of the four basic components of communication?
  • Which step involves removing eyewear if applicable?
  • Which of the following is a MEVA location?
  • The FPCON reference is found in which document?
  • Who are the only ones authorized to enter a perimeter around a suspicious package?
  • What are the three clues for DUI stimulus?
  • What are the Fruits of a crime?
  • Which statement best captures the concept of a reasonable expectation of privacy under the Fourth Amendment?
  • How many degrees should the turn be for a walk and turn?
  • What is DD 5580/10 used for?
  • Which impairment clue involves foot placement during a walk?
  • When should the ICR be completed?
  • The term "Fruits of a poisonous tree" describes evidence that is what?
  • When would Norfolk PD respond to a call on base?
  • When should a permissive Authorization For Search and Seizure be completed?
  • Which units are required to carry a drone buster?
  • Which Airfields are MEVA's?
  • Authorization to pursue a vehicle off base is allowed under which condition?
  • What term refers to the power of the court to hear a case and render a legally competent decision?
  • Debarments will not be issued to a civilian personnel requiring base access unless directed by the watch commander (T/F)
  • Code 3 stands for which type of response?
  • Desk journal entries are recorded into which system?
  • Which option is NOT one of the six types of searches?
  • What should you do before moving an unauthorized weapon discovered in a barracks or building?
  • Which form documents a voluntary statement?
  • What is DD 5580/20 used for?
  • What is needed for a command authorized search?
  • Which of the following is NOT a type of warrant?
  • Which instruction governs the Navy safety and occupational health program?
  • How many clues for impairment?
  • CODE 3 Response refers to which type of situation?
  • What is the AA&E Alarm Response Time?
  • During after-hours, how often does NSF conduct building checks?
  • Which term refers to items gained in commission of a crime?
  • Which of the following is NOT a level in the Use of Force Continuum as described?
  • M4 Max effective range
  • What is DD 5580/8 used for?
  • In what situation would Norfolk PD respond on base?
  • MEVA stands for which acronym?
  • Which area is defined as local for warrant purposes?
  • Phase 1 for DUI procedures involve which activity?
  • Which items are examples of contraband?
  • Refusal of breath tests results in which charge?
  • What is an individual requesting a protective order called?
  • Permissive Authorization for Search is filed on which DD 5580 form?
  • Which question requires the subject to assume a stance with feet together and hands at sides?
  • What is the second clue of impairment?
  • Is an SFST or PBT mandatory?
  • Which of the following is NOT an SP MEVA?
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